21. A broker has listed a property for $225,000... The first offeror demands the seller spend $5,000 in repairs... The seller may do any of the following EXCEPT

Answer: D

Explanation:

The seller may ignore the demand and sell the property to the second offeror.

The seller cannot simply ignore the demand for repairs and sell the property to the second offeror without addressing the first offeror's agreement. This situation involves legal obligations that must be considered.

A) Agree to do the needed repairs and consummate the transaction with the first offeror.

This option is valid as the seller can agree to the repairs requested by the first offeror, thus fulfilling the terms of the agreement and completing the sale.

B) Refuse to do the repairs and still proceed with the sale in as-is condition.

The seller has the right to refuse the repairs and sell the property as-is, assuming the first offeror is aware and accepts the condition of the property. This option aligns with the seller's rights.

C) Terminate the first agreement in writing and sell to the second offeror.

The seller can choose to terminate the first agreement with proper written notice, allowing them to pursue a sale with the second offeror. This is a legitimate action as long as the agreement allows for termination.

D) Ignore the demand and sell the property to the second offeror.

This option is incorrect as it implies that the seller can disregard the first offeror's request entirely. Doing so could lead to legal repercussions since the first offeror's demand must be formally addressed or resolved.

Conclusion

The correct answer is D because it misrepresents the seller's ability to ignore contractual obligations. While the seller can refuse repairs and proceed with an as-is sale, they cannot neglect the first offeror's demand without potentially breaching the agreement. All other options are valid actions that align with the seller's rights and responsibilities in this transaction.