Question 15

A licensee may place a For Sale sign on a property only with the written consent of the seller.

A licensee must obtain the seller's written consent before placing a For Sale sign on the property, ensuring that the seller is fully aware and in agreement with the marketing of their property.

A) 24 hours after a listing is signed

This option is incorrect because it suggests that time alone is sufficient to place a For Sale sign. Regardless of when the listing is signed, the licensee still requires the seller's consent to proceed with displaying the sign.

B) 3 days after a listing is signed

Similar to option A, this option is incorrect as it implies a time frame that does not account for the necessity of obtaining the seller's consent. A licensee cannot assume permission based on the listing date alone.

C) only with the written consent of the employing broker

This option is incorrect because it focuses on the broker's consent rather than the seller's. While the broker may have a role in overseeing the licensee's actions, the ultimate authority for placing a For Sale sign lies with the seller.

D) only with the written consent of the seller

This option is correct as it emphasizes the requirement for the licensee to have explicit permission from the seller before placing a For Sale sign. This ensures that the seller maintains control over their property and its marketing.

Conclusion

The correct answer, which states that a licensee may only place a For Sale sign with the written consent of the seller, highlights the importance of respecting the seller's rights and authority in the sales process. Other options fail to recognize this critical requirement, making them invalid in the context of property marketing practices.