Question 35

A licensee may place a For Sale sign on a property only with the written consent of the seller.

A licensee is required to obtain written consent from the seller before placing a For Sale sign on the property. This ensures that the seller has control over the advertising and representation of their property.

A) 24 hours after a listing is signed

This option is incorrect because it implies that a licensee can automatically place a sign after a certain period without the need for the seller's consent. Consent is necessary regardless of the time elapsed since the listing agreement was signed.

B) 3 days after a listing is signed

Similar to option A, this choice suggests that a licensee can act independently after a specified period. However, the requirement for written consent from the seller remains paramount, making this option incorrect.

C) only with the written consent of the employing broker

While obtaining consent from the employing broker may be important for other aspects of real estate transactions, it does not replace the need for the seller's consent when placing a For Sale sign. Thus, this option is incorrect.

D) only with the written consent of the seller

This option is correct as it emphasizes the importance of the seller's written consent before a sign can be placed on the property. It aligns with ethical practices in real estate, ensuring that the seller's wishes are respected.

Conclusion

The correct answer is D because it highlights the critical requirement of obtaining the seller's written consent before placing a For Sale sign. All other options fail to recognize that the seller's approval is essential for proper representation and adherence to real estate regulations. Consent from the seller safeguards their interests and maintains professionalism within the industry.