Question 46

Turner's syndrome is a disorder in which a female has a completely or partially missing X chromosome.

Turner's syndrome is accurately described as a chromosomal alteration, specifically involving a female having a completely or partially missing X chromosome, which is a direct alteration in the chromosomal structure.

A) Type 2 DM (T2DM) is caused by family history, behavior, and other factors.

This option is incorrect as it refers to a metabolic condition rather than a chromosomal alteration. Type 2 diabetes is influenced by genetic and environmental factors, but it does not involve a change in chromosome structure.

B) Turner's syndrome is a disorder in which a female has a completely or partially missing X chromosome.

This option is correct as it directly describes a chromosomal alteration. Turner's syndrome results from the absence or alteration of one of the two X chromosomes typically found in females, leading to various developmental and physical issues.

C) Y chromosome as hemophilia is associated with the X chromosome.

This option is misleading. While hemophilia is indeed linked to the X chromosome, it does not accurately describe a chromosomal alteration itself. The statement conflates the roles of the X and Y chromosomes without defining a specific chromosomal alteration.

D) Hypertension is always linked to the Y chromosome and environmental factors.

This option is incorrect because hypertension is a complex condition with multiple contributing factors, including lifestyle and genetics, but it is not specifically defined as a chromosomal alteration. It does not relate to a change in chromosome structure.

Conclusion

The correct answer is B, which accurately describes Turner's syndrome as a chromosomal alteration involving a missing X chromosome in females. In contrast, the other options either discuss unrelated medical conditions or fail to provide a clear definition of a chromosomal alteration, thus reinforcing B as the only accurate choice in this context.