Tennessee Real Estate Exams — PSI Tennessee Real Estate Affiliate Broker Exam

1. A real estate broker wrote a full-price offer of $350000 for a buyer. The earnest-money deposit was $25000. The offer was accepted and the broker placed the deposit in her escrow account. The next week the parties cancelled the contract in writing and asked the broker to return the deposit. Which is TRUE?

Answer: B

Explanation:

The broker must return the deposit unless specifically authorized otherwise.

In this scenario, the broker is required to return the earnest-money deposit of $25,000 since the parties have cancelled the contract in writing and have requested the return of the deposit. Without specific authorization or conditions outlined in the contract that allow for the broker to retain any portion of the deposit, the broker must comply with the request.

A) The broker must negotiate for her commission out of the deposit

This option is incorrect because there is no indication that the broker is entitled to negotiate her commission from the deposit in this situation. The contract was cancelled, and the parties have explicitly asked for the deposit to be returned, which takes precedence over any commission negotiations.

B) The broker must return the deposit unless specifically authorized otherwise

This statement is correct as it aligns with standard real estate practice. When a contract is cancelled and both parties request the return of the deposit, the broker has the obligation to return the full deposit unless there are specific terms in the agreement that state otherwise.

C) The broker may subtract one-half of her commission before returning the deposit

This option is incorrect as it implies that the broker has the right to deduct part of her commission from the deposit. Since the contract was cancelled and the request for return was made, the broker cannot unilaterally decide to deduct any amount without explicit authorization.

D) The broker has earned a commission and may automatically subtract the entire amount before returning the balance

This statement is also incorrect. The cancellation of the contract negates any automatic entitlement to a commission from the deposit. The broker must return the full amount of the deposit unless explicitly stated otherwise in the contract.

Conclusion

The correct answer is that the broker must return the deposit unless specifically authorized otherwise, reflecting the obligation to follow the request of both parties after a contract cancellation. All other options incorrectly suggest that the broker has a right to retain or negotiate her commission from the deposit despite the cancellation, which is not supported by the context provided.

2. How soon MUST earnest money be deposited in an escrow or trust account after an offer is accepted?

Answer: A

Explanation:

Earnest money must be deposited promptly upon acceptance of the offer.

The earnest money deposit is required to be placed in an escrow or trust account promptly after the acceptance of the offer to ensure that the transaction is secured and to demonstrate the buyer's serious intent.

A) Promptly upon acceptance of the offer.

This option is correct because it accurately reflects the requirement that earnest money must be deposited immediately or without undue delay after the offer is accepted. This practice helps protect the interests of both the buyer and seller in the real estate transaction.

B) The next business day.

This option is incorrect as it suggests a specific timeline that is not mandated by law. While depositing earnest money the next business day may be a common practice, it does not align with the requirement for promptness as outlined in real estate guidelines.

C) Within 5 business days.

This option is also incorrect because it establishes a timeframe that is longer than the necessary promptness required for depositing earnest money. The emphasis on promptness indicates that any delay beyond immediate action may jeopardize the transaction.

D) Within 7 business days.

This option is incorrect as it further extends the timeframe for depositing earnest money, which contradicts the principle of acting promptly upon acceptance of the offer. Such delays could lead to potential issues or disputes in the transaction process.

Conclusion

The correct answer, "promptly upon acceptance of the offer," underscores the importance of immediate action in real estate transactions. Options B, C, and D introduce unnecessary delays that can compromise the integrity of the transaction and the commitments made by both parties. Thus, understanding the promptness requirement is essential for ensuring a smooth and secure real estate process.

3. The Housing for Older Persons Act

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Housing for Older Persons Act requires at least 80% of occupied units to have one person 55+

The Housing for Older Persons Act stipulates that at least 80% of the occupied units in a community must have at least one resident who is 55 years of age or older. This criterion helps ensure that the housing is specifically designed for older individuals.

A) allows grandparents with grandchildren to be exempt

This option is incorrect as the Housing for Older Persons Act does not provide an exemption for grandparents living with their grandchildren. The focus of the Act is to maintain a specific age demographic among residents, rather than allowing for familial exemptions.

B) requires at least 80% of occupied units have one person 55+

This statement accurately reflects a key provision of the Housing for Older Persons Act, which mandates that at least 80% of the units must be occupied by at least one person aged 55 or older, thereby ensuring the community is predominantly for older individuals.

C) requires 55+ housing to have senior-specific facilities

While senior housing often includes amenities tailored to older residents, the Housing for Older Persons Act does not explicitly mandate that such facilities be included. Therefore, this option is incorrect as it misrepresents the legal requirements of the Act.

D) allows monetary damages against those who believed the exemption applied

This option is also incorrect. The Act does not stipulate provisions for monetary damages against those who mistakenly believe they qualify for an exemption. The focus is instead on defining the age requirements for housing rather than punitive measures.

Conclusion

The correct answer, which highlights the requirement for at least 80% of occupied units to have one resident who is 55 or older, directly supports the primary purpose of the Housing for Older Persons Act. Other options fail to accurately represent the legal stipulations of the Act, either misinterpreting its provisions or suggesting incorrect exemptions and consequences.

4. A buyer asked a licensee about a property listed by another brokerage firm. After talking to the buyer, the licensee declined to show the property. Which of the following, if true, is a valid reason for the licensee's decision

Answer: D

Explanation:

The licensee declined to show the property because the price was not within the buyer's financial qualifications.

The licensee's decision to decline showing the property is justified if the price exceeds what the buyer can afford. It is crucial for a licensee to ensure that properties shown to clients align with their financial capabilities.

A) The property was the site of a recent murder-suicide

While this may be a significant factor affecting a buyer's interest, it does not provide a legitimate reason for the licensee to decline showing the property. The licensee is not obligated to disclose such stigmatizing events unless specifically required by law, and it does not relate to the buyer's ability to purchase the property.

B) The buyer would be more comfortable in a neighborhood with fewer children

This option reflects personal preference rather than a valid reason for declining to show the property. A licensee’s role is to assist clients in finding suitable properties regardless of neighborhood demographics, as comfort levels are subjective and do not pertain to the buyer's financial situation.

C) The listing broker is not part of the local board

The affiliation of the listing broker with the local board does not provide a basis for declining to show the property. Licensees are generally expected to show any available listings, regardless of the listing broker's membership in local organizations, unless there are specific legal or ethical reasons not to do so.

D) The price was not within the buyer's financial qualifications

This is a valid reason for the licensee's decision. If the property is beyond the buyer's financial means, it is responsible for the licensee to refrain from showing it, ensuring that the buyer does not invest time in properties they cannot afford.

Conclusion

The correct answer highlights the importance of aligning property options with a buyer's financial qualifications, which is a fundamental aspect of real estate practice. All other options fail to provide legitimate reasons for the licensee's decision, as they are based on personal preferences or irrelevant factors. Thus, option D is definitively the most appropriate response.

5. Which of the following statements is the best description of covenants and conditions?

Answer: B

Explanation:

Covenants and conditions are private restrictions.

Covenants and conditions are legal agreements or restrictions placed on property that are established by private parties. They are typically included in deeds or leases and serve to regulate the use, appearance, and maintenance of the property.

A) They prevail over zoning in the event of a conflict.

This statement is incorrect because zoning laws are public regulations that govern land use, while covenants and conditions are private agreements. In cases of conflict, zoning laws generally take precedence over private restrictions unless the covenants are more restrictive.

B) They are private restrictions.

This statement accurately captures the essence of covenants and conditions, which are indeed private restrictions made by property owners. They are intended to maintain certain standards and limitations on properties within a specific area, and they are enforceable among private parties.

C) They are an exercise of police power.

This option is incorrect, as police power refers to the government's authority to enact laws to promote public health, safety, and welfare. Covenants and conditions are established by private individuals and do not represent an exercise of government power.

D) They do not run with the land.

This statement is also incorrect because covenants and conditions can run with the land, meaning they are binding on future owners of the property, provided that certain legal requirements are met. This characteristic distinguishes them from other private agreements that may not be enforceable by subsequent owners.

Conclusion

In summary, option B is the definitive correct answer as it encapsulates the nature of covenants and conditions as private restrictions that govern property use. The other options misrepresent the role and legal standing of covenants and conditions in relation to zoning laws, police power, and their binding nature on future property owners.

6. A buyer wants to list a property, but a sibling who is a joint owner refuses to sign the listing agreement or pay a Commission. What is the broker's most appropriate course of action

Answer: A

Explanation:

The broker should wait and let the buyer deal with the sibling, then take the listing if they cannot agree to terms.

In this situation, it is prudent for the broker to allow the buyer to resolve the disagreement with the sibling joint owner. This approach avoids potential legal complications and ensures that all parties are willing to engage in the listing process.

A) The broker should wait and let the buyer deal with the sibling, then take the listing if they cannot agree to terms

This option is correct as it emphasizes the importance of resolving ownership issues before proceeding with the listing. By waiting, the broker allows the buyer to negotiate with the sibling, which can lead to a clearer understanding of ownership rights and responsibilities, thus preventing future disputes.

B) The broker should have the buyer execute an exclusive right-to-sell listing

This option is incorrect because an exclusive right-to-sell listing requires the agreement of all owners to be valid. Since the sibling is refusing to sign, the broker cannot legally bind the property under this type of agreement, making this option unfeasible.

C) The broker should have the buyer execute an exclusive agency listing

This option is also incorrect as it similarly requires the consent of all owners to be effective. The sibling's refusal to sign means that the exclusive agency listing would not be enforceable, thus not providing the broker with the necessary authority to act on behalf of the buyer.

D) The broker should have the buyer execute an open listing

This choice is incorrect as well. While an open listing allows for multiple brokers to be involved, it still necessitates that all owners agree to the terms. With the sibling's refusal to cooperate, this option would not provide a solid foundation for the listing and could lead to further complications.

Conclusion

Option A is definitively the best course of action, as it respects the legal rights of all joint owners and promotes resolution through direct negotiation. In contrast, the other options fail to address the necessity of having all owners' agreement, thereby risking legal challenges and complications in the listing process.

7. The increase in value of a home due to the addition of central air conditioning is best estimated by using

Answer: D

Explanation:

The increase in value of a home due to the addition of central air conditioning is best estimated by using the difference in the sales prices of comparable homes with and without air conditioning.

Estimating the increase in a home's value from central air conditioning is most accurately done by comparing the sales prices of similar homes, one equipped with air conditioning and the other without. This method reflects market perceptions and actual buyer willingness to pay for the feature.

A) the full cost of the purchase and installation of the air conditioning

Using the full cost of purchase and installation does not accurately reflect market value. Homebuyers may not be willing to pay the entire cost incurred, as they consider the feature's value in relation to homes in the area rather than its installation cost.

B) one-half the cost of the purchase and installation of the air conditioning

Estimating value at one-half the cost of purchase and installation is arbitrary and does not align with market realities. Buyers do not simply value air conditioning at a fraction of its cost; rather, they assess its desirability and impact on overall home value based on comparable properties.

C) the cost of the purchase but not the installation of the air conditioning

This option ignores the total investment made in the air conditioning, which may not accurately represent the value added to the home. Just like the previous options, it fails to consider the actual market dynamics and buyer behavior regarding comparable homes.

D) the difference in the sales prices of comparable homes with and without air conditioning

This approach provides a direct correlation to the market's perception of value. It reflects what buyers are willing to pay for the added comfort and convenience of central air conditioning, making it the most reliable method for estimating the increase in home value.

Conclusion

The correct answer, D, focuses on real market comparisons, which are essential for assessing property value accurately. All other options rely on costs rather than on what buyers are willing to pay, making them inadequate for determining the true increase in home value associated with central air conditioning.

8. A broker is working with a family which is multiracial. The broker only shows properties located in multiracial neighborhoods. Even though the broker thinks they are doing the family a favor, this is violating the Fair Housing Act prohibition against

Answer: C

Explanation:

Steering

The broker's action of only showing properties in multiracial neighborhoods constitutes steering, which is a violation of the Fair Housing Act. Steering occurs when a real estate agent guides prospective homeowners to or away from certain neighborhoods based on their race or ethnicity.

A) redlining

Redlining refers to the practice of denying services, typically in mortgage lending, to residents of certain areas based on their race or ethnicity. While related to discriminatory practices, redlining specifically pertains to financial services rather than the act of showing properties, making this option incorrect.

B) disparate treatment

Disparate treatment involves treating individuals differently based on their race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. Although the broker's actions may reflect disparate treatment, the specific act of limiting property options based on race is more accurately described as steering, making this choice less precise.

C) steering

Steering is the practice of guiding clients toward or away from certain neighborhoods based on their race or ethnicity. In this case, the broker is only showing properties in multiracial neighborhoods, which directly aligns with the definition of steering and is a clear violation of the Fair Housing Act.

D) blockbusting

Blockbusting is the practice of inducing homeowners to sell their properties at low prices by instilling fear of racial or ethnic changes in the neighborhood. This option does not apply here, as the broker is not inducing a sale but rather limiting options based on the family's race.

Conclusion

The broker's actions clearly exemplify steering, which is a violation of the Fair Housing Act. All other options either misrepresent the scenario or pertain to different aspects of housing discrimination, thereby reinforcing that steering is the correct answer in this context.

9. The buyers wrote their offer contingent upon their ability to obtain financing. What is the most likely scenario in the event of the bank denying their loan?

Answer: A

Explanation:

The buyer will receive the earnest money back, as the contract became void when the contingency could not be satisfied.

In the event that the bank denies the loan, the buyer's offer was contingent upon obtaining financing, which means that if this condition is not fulfilled, the contract is considered void, and the buyer is entitled to a refund of their earnest money.

A) The buyer will receive the earnest money back, as the contract became void when the contingency could not be satisfied.

This option accurately reflects the legal principle of contingencies in real estate contracts. When a contract includes a financing contingency, failure to secure a loan means that the buyer can withdraw from the agreement without penalty, thus receiving their earnest money back.

B) It could be determined the buyer committed fraud by submitting an offer while being unable to meet the requirements for financing.

This option is incorrect as it misinterprets the nature of contingencies. If the buyer was genuinely unaware of their inability to secure financing, or if the contingency was appropriately disclosed, fraud would not be a reasonable conclusion. Contingencies are a standard part of real estate transactions.

C) Most likely the seller will bring action against the buyer to be compensated for liquidated damages they have incurred.

This option is also incorrect. Since the buyer's inability to obtain financing voids the contract due to the contingency, the seller cannot claim liquidated damages. The buyer has not breached the contract; rather, the contract simply cannot be fulfilled.

D) The agent's commission would be deemed earned for having brought about a meeting of the minds between a seller and a ready, willing, and able buyer.

This option is inaccurate as well. The agent's commission is typically contingent upon the successful closing of a sale. If the contract is void due to the financing contingency not being met, the agent would not earn a commission since the transaction did not complete.

Conclusion

The correct answer, A, highlights the buyer's right to receive their earnest money back if they cannot secure financing, as the contract becomes void under such circumstances. All other options fail to recognize the implications of contingencies in real estate transactions, leading to incorrect interpretations of the buyer's rights and the nature of the contract.

10. Which of the following must a property manager do before renting an apartment that was built in 1968?

Answer: A

Explanation:

Provide a lead-based paint disclosure to the tenant.

Before renting an apartment built in 1968, a property manager must provide a lead-based paint disclosure to the tenant, as properties constructed before 1978 are subject to federal regulations regarding lead-based paint hazards.

A) Provide a lead-based paint disclosure to the tenant.

This option is correct because federal law requires that landlords disclose the presence of lead-based paint in properties built before 1978. Since the apartment in question was built in 1968, the property manager is legally obligated to inform potential tenants about the risks associated with lead-based paint.

B) Make sure all elevators are in working order.

While ensuring that elevators are in working order is important for tenant safety, it is not a specific legal requirement related to properties built before 1978 concerning lead-based paint. Therefore, this option does not address the primary concern regarding lead disclosure.

C) Provide a copy of the most recent building inspection report.

Providing a building inspection report may be beneficial for transparency and safety, but it is not mandated by law specifically for apartments built before 1978. The requirement for lead-based paint disclosure takes precedence in this context.

D) Collect a security deposit.

Although collecting a security deposit is a common practice in rental agreements, it is not a requirement linked to the age of the property or lead-based paint regulations. This option does not satisfy the legal obligations concerning lead disclosure for older properties.

Conclusion

The requirement to provide a lead-based paint disclosure is crucial for properties constructed before 1978, including those built in 1968. While other options may involve important aspects of property management, they do not specifically address the legal obligations related to lead-based paint. Thus, option A is the only correct answer in this context.