GMAT Verbal Reasoning Exams — GMAT 2025 Exam Changes Verbal Reasoning

1. In order to evaluate the potential effectiveness of the psychologist's recommendation it would be most helpful to know which of the following?

Answer: D

Explanation:

Understanding people's ability to recognize contrary evidence is crucial for evaluating the psychologist's recommendation.

Knowing how able, on average, people are to recognize when evidence contradicts their opinions is essential to assess the effectiveness of the psychologist's advice. If individuals struggle to identify opposing evidence, the recommendation to seek it out may not be practical or beneficial.

A) Whether most people seek out evidence contrary to their opinions and try to create arguments for alternative viewpoints based on this evidence

While this option addresses the behavior of individuals in seeking contrary evidence, it does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the psychologist's recommendation. Understanding whether people actually engage in this behavior is less relevant than knowing their ability to recognize contradictory evidence.

B) What causes people to notice evidence for what they already believe and to ignore evidence that contradicts their beliefs

This option focuses on the underlying causes of confirmation bias rather than evaluating the psychologist's recommendation. Knowledge of the causes is important, but it does not directly assess the effectiveness of actively seeking contrary evidence.

C) How often confirmation bias leads certain people to make unwise judgments

While understanding the frequency of unwise judgments due to confirmation bias is valuable, it does not provide insight into how well individuals can recognize opposing evidence. This information is less pertinent to evaluating the psychologist's suggestion.

D) How able, on average, people are to recognize when evidence is contrary to their opinions

This option is the most relevant for evaluating the effectiveness of the psychologist's recommendation. If people are generally capable of recognizing contrary evidence, they are more likely to benefit from the advice to seek it out and consider alternative viewpoints.

E) The techniques by which people may effectively find evidence contrary to their opinions and create arguments based on that evidence

While knowing techniques for finding contrary evidence could be useful, it does not directly address the core issue of whether people can recognize this evidence when it appears. Therefore, it is not as relevant to evaluating the psychologist's recommendation.

Conclusion

The ability of individuals to recognize contrary evidence is fundamental to the effectiveness of the psychologist's recommendation. If people are adept at identifying opposing viewpoints, they can better implement the advice given. In contrast, the other options either focus on behaviors or underlying causes that do not directly measure the potential success of seeking out contrary evidence.

2. The passage claims that RNA interference could lead to TKS becoming a viable source of rubber if which of the following occurred?

Answer: D

Explanation:

TKS plants are developed that produce more rubber than such plants were able to produce at the time the passage was written.

For TKS to become a viable source of rubber, it is essential that TKS plants are bioengineered to produce higher yields of rubber than the current output. This innovation would allow the rubber industry to reduce its dependency on synthetic rubber, which is affected by oil prices.

A) TKS is determined to be free of allergenic proteins.

While being free of allergenic proteins is beneficial for TKS, as mentioned in the extract regarding guayule, it does not directly relate to the viability of TKS as a rubber source. The focus of the passage is on the production yield and the impact of RNA interference on rubber extraction, not on allergenic properties.

B) The price of the oil from which synthetic rubber is made increases significantly from the time the passage was written.

An increase in oil prices would not enhance the viability of TKS as a rubber source. Instead, the passage argues that finding alternative sources, like TKS, with higher rubber yields is crucial for reducing the industry's dependence on oil prices. Thus, this option does not align with the passage's core argument.

C) It is confirmed that rubber from TKS has a more regular structure than that of synthetic rubber.

Confirmation of a more regular structure in TKS rubber compared to synthetic rubber may be relevant for quality considerations but does not address the necessary condition for TKS to be viable. The extract emphasizes the need for increased production yields as the primary focus.

D) TKS plants are developed that produce more rubber than such plants were able to produce at the time the passage was written.

This option is directly supported by the extract, which indicates that higher rubber yield from TKS plants, combined with the RNA interference technique, is essential for making TKS a competitive and viable source of rubber. The passage clearly highlights this aspect as a key to overcoming current production limitations.

E) Land that has been used for growing trees traditionally used for rubber can be developed to be suitable for planting and harvesting TKS at least twice a year.

While this option may discuss the potential for land use, it does not directly address the necessary condition mentioned in the extract regarding TKS's rubber yield. The passage's focus is specifically on enhancing the rubber production of TKS plants themselves rather than land suitability.

Conclusion

The viability of TKS as a rubber source hinges on the development of plants that yield more rubber than previously possible, as outlined in the passage. Options A, B, C, and E fail to address this critical requirement, making D the only correct choice that aligns with the extract's message about enhancing rubber production through bioengineering and RNA interference.

3. Which of the following statements is NOT indicated by the passage?

Answer: A

Explanation:

Those who develop theories of justice disagree about the extent to which economic activity affects ecological processes.

The passage does not indicate that theorists disagree about the relationship between economic activity and ecological processes. Rather, it discusses the perspectives of John Rawls and Martha Nussbaum on justice without suggesting any disagreement on this specific issue.

A) Those who develop theories of justice disagree about the extent to which economic activity affects ecological processes.

This statement is not supported by the passage, which presents both Rawls and Nussbaum’s theories without suggesting any disagreement regarding the influence of economic activity on ecological processes. The text focuses on their differing frameworks for evaluating justice, not on their consensus or disagreement about the impact of economics on ecology.

B) Economic productivity can result in environmental conditions that interfere with some central human functional capabilities.

This statement is supported by the passage, which highlights the conflict between economic productivity and the environmental conditions necessary for basic capabilities. It emphasizes the need to assess how these conditions affect individuals' abilities to achieve essential functions.

C) Both Rawls and Nussbaum address the question of social position in their theories of justice.

This statement is accurate as the passage explicitly mentions that both theorists evaluate relative social position through different lenses. Rawls focuses on "primary goods," while Nussbaum emphasizes human functional capabilities, indicating that both are concerned with social position.

D) Capabilities can be defined as underlying factors that enable achievements.

The passage supports this statement by explaining Nussbaum's perspective on capabilities as conditions that allow individuals to realize achievements. This definition aligns with her theory, emphasizing the importance of capabilities in assessing justice.

E) Consideration of how economic activity and ecological processes affect the distribution of benefits and burdens in a society is necessary if environmental inequities are to be addressed.

This statement is consistent with the passage, which argues that addressing environmental inequities requires understanding the interactions between economic activity and ecological processes. It underscores the necessity of this consideration in evaluating justice.

Conclusion

The correct answer, A, is clearly not indicated by the passage, as it does not reflect any disagreement among theorists about the effects of economic activity on ecological processes. In contrast, options B, C, D, and E are all supported by the text, illustrating key aspects of Nussbaum's and Rawls's theories and their implications for justice and environmental conditions. Thus, A stands out as the only statement lacking support from the provided extract.

4. Which of the following would, if true, most help to account for the plan's failure to achieve the desired results?

Answer: C

Explanation:

In 2008, processed foods were a significantly higher percentage of people's daily food consumption than in the 1980s.

The plan's failure to reduce salt consumption can be attributed to the increased reliance on processed foods, which typically contain higher levels of salt. This shift in dietary habits means that even with reduced salt levels in some products, overall consumption could still rise due to the higher proportion of processed foods in people's diets.

A) The population increased significantly between the 1980s and 2008.

While a population increase could lead to higher overall consumption of salt, it does not directly explain why the specific salt consumption rates among men and women rose significantly. The increase in population does not account for changes in dietary habits or the types of foods consumed.

B) Makers of processed foods have created several new products since the 1980s.

The introduction of new processed food products may have contributed to increased salt consumption, but this option lacks a direct connection to the overall percentage of processed foods consumed. New products could either have high or low salt content, and thus this statement alone does not effectively account for the overall increase in salt consumption.

C) In 2008, processed foods were a significantly higher percentage of people's daily food consumption than in the 1980s.

This statement directly addresses the core issue, highlighting that the increase in processed food consumption likely led to higher overall salt intake. With processed foods typically containing more salt, their greater presence in diets would naturally lead to increased salt consumption, regardless of any reductions made by the food industry.

D) In 2008, more people were aware of the dangers of consuming excess salt than prior to the 1980s.

Increased awareness of health risks does not necessarily translate into decreased consumption. If individuals are consuming more processed foods, awareness alone may not be sufficient to alter behavior regarding salt intake, thus failing to account for the continued rise in consumption.

E) On average, the consumption of excess salt has more adverse effects on men's health than it has on women's health.

While this statement presents a gender difference in health effects, it does not address the overall increase in salt consumption. It may indicate that men should be more concerned about salt intake, but it does not explain the broader trend of increased consumption across both genders.

Conclusion

The correct answer, C, effectively explains the failure of the government’s plan by linking the rise in processed food consumption to increased salt intake. Other options fail to provide a clear connection between dietary habits and the observed increase in salt consumption, making them inadequate explanations for the plan's ineffectiveness. Thus, the shift towards a higher percentage of processed foods in diets is the most significant factor in understanding this issue.

5. Information in the passage indicates that if adult hosts and juvenile hosts of the same species had the same surface area, which of the following would most likely also be true?

Answer: C

Explanation:

The adult hosts, on average, would have approximately the same number of parasites as the juvenile hosts.

The passage indicates that although parasites were more abundant on adult hosts than on smaller juveniles, they were not more dense when adjusted for surface area. This suggests that if both adult and juvenile hosts had the same surface area, they would likely have approximately the same number of parasites.

A) The adult hosts, on average, would have more parasites than the juvenile hosts.

This option is incorrect because the passage clarifies that while adult hosts had a higher abundance of parasites, this did not result in a higher density when accounting for surface area. Therefore, it cannot be concluded that adults would have more parasites than juveniles under the specified condition of equal surface area.

B) The adult hosts would, on average, have fewer parasites than the juvenile hosts.

This option is also incorrect. The passage suggests that adult hosts had a greater abundance of parasites compared to juveniles. Therefore, stating that adults would have fewer parasites contradicts the information provided about parasite abundance.

C) The adult hosts, on average, would have approximately the same number of parasites as the juvenile hosts.

This option is correct. The text indicates that adjusting for surface area showed no significant differences in parasite density between adult and juvenile hosts, implying that they would have approximately the same number of parasites if their surface area were equal.

D) The adult hosts, on average, would be less likely to survive than the juvenile hosts.

This statement is incorrect as the passage notes that the survival probability for adults was not affected by parasitism, while parasitized juveniles had lower survival rates. Thus, adults cannot be considered less likely to survive based on the context provided.

E) The adult hosts, on average, would be more likely to survive than the juvenile hosts.

This option is misleading. Although the passage indicates that adults were not affected by parasitism in terms of survival probability, it does not directly state that they are more likely to survive than juveniles. Therefore, this option does not align with the findings presented.

Conclusion

In summary, the correct answer is that adult hosts would have approximately the same number of parasites as juvenile hosts when surface area is equal, as indicated by the study's findings. All other options fail to accurately represent the relationship between host age and parasite presence as described in the passage.

6. The primary purpose of the passage is to

Answer: A

Explanation:

The primary purpose of the passage is to describe a study of the kinds of words that are memorable as brand names.

The passage focuses on a research study that investigates how different brand names affect memory recall and recognition in the context of advertising. It presents findings about the memorability of various brand names, thus illustrating the characteristics that make certain words more effective as brand names.

A) describe a study of the kinds of words that are memorable as brand names

This option correctly identifies the main focus of the passage. The text outlines a specific study that analyzes how different brand names impact memory, emphasizing their effectiveness in advertising and consumer recall. The detailed examination of brand names Monit, Parade, Simplicity, and Ultimate directly supports this purpose.

B) explain why brand-name recognition differs from brand-name recall in the context of advertising

While the passage mentions differences between recognition and recall, it does not primarily aim to explain these differences. Instead, it focuses more on the study itself and the outcomes regarding the memorability of various brand names, making this option less aligned with the primary purpose.

C) determine which of four possibilities is the best brand name for a new camera

This option misinterprets the passage's intent. The study does not conclude which brand name is the best; rather, it investigates the memorability of the given names without making a definitive recommendation. Thus, this choice does not reflect the passage's purpose.

D) illustrate the different methods employed in marketing a type of product

Although the study relates to marketing, the passage does not discuss various marketing methods. Instead, it centers on a specific experiment regarding brand names and their memorability, making this option an inaccurate representation of the passage's main focus.

E) provide a critical analysis of a study of memory and brand names

This option suggests a critical analysis, which the passage does not fulfill. Instead, it presents the findings of the study without offering a critique or broader evaluation, rendering this choice incorrect.

Conclusion

In summary, option A is definitively correct as it encapsulates the main focus of the passage, which is the study of memorable brand names. All other options either misinterpret the purpose or focus on aspects that are not central to the text, thereby failing to capture the primary intent of the research discussed.

7. The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on grounds that it

Answer: E

Explanation:

The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on grounds that it groups together those people who experienced a complete elimination of back pain with those who experienced only a significant reduction.

The argument fails to differentiate between individuals who have completely eliminated their back pain and those who have only seen a significant reduction. This lack of distinction can lead to misleading conclusions about the efficacy of the Backease cushion.

A) overlooks the possibility that people who develop back pain and do not use a Backease cushion can readily find an effective alternative

This option is incorrect because it addresses the potential for alternatives to the Backease cushion rather than the argument's fundamental flaw. The focus of the criticism is specifically on how results are grouped rather than on the existence of other solutions.

B) overlooks the possibility that some of the people surveyed use a Backease cushion for reasons other than the alleviation of back pain, such as helping them to relax

This statement is also incorrect as it pertains to alternative uses of the cushion, which does not directly challenge the argument's grouping of results. The primary issue remains the classification of pain relief outcomes rather than the motivation for using the cushion.

C) overlooks the possibility that among the 30 percent who did not experience a significant reduction or complete elimination of their back pain, some experienced a moderate improvement

While this option raises a valid point about the range of experiences, it does not pinpoint the critical flaw regarding the lack of distinction in the grouping of results. Therefore, it does not adequately address the argument's vulnerability.

D) relies solely on personal reports rather than on reasoning

This option is incorrect because the vulnerability lies in the categorization of data rather than solely the reliance on personal reports. The argument can still hold some weight if the reasoning is sound, even if based on personal reports.

Conclusion

In summary, option E accurately identifies that the argument's weakness stems from its failure to distinguish between those who experienced complete elimination of back pain and those who only saw significant reduction. This grouping can obscure the true effectiveness of the Backease cushion, making it a critical flaw that undermines the argument. All other options either address unrelated concerns or fail to highlight the essential issue at hand.

8. Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the discrepancy between precipitation and flooding in Verenia?

Answer: A

Explanation:

Nearly all of the increase in precipitation in Verenia has occurred in the hottest and driest months of the year.

This statement helps to explain the apparent paradox between increased precipitation and stable flooding levels in Verenia. If most of the precipitation occurs during the hottest and driest months, it may not lead to significant runoff or flooding because the ground can absorb more water during these times.

A) Nearly all of the increase in precipitation in Verenia has occurred in the hottest and driest months of the year.

This option directly addresses the relationship between precipitation and flooding. If the bulk of the increased rainfall happens during months that are typically dry and hot, the soil is likely to absorb much of the water rather than allowing it to run off into rivers, thus preventing flooding.

B) After descending from Verenia, the rivers flow into a region in which crop irrigation has increased significantly over the last 50 years.

While this option suggests that increased irrigation downstream could affect water levels, it does not resolve the discrepancy regarding the lack of increased flooding in Verenia itself. Instead, it might indicate how water is being used after it leaves Verenia, but not how precipitation impacts flooding in the region.

C) Many scientists are predicting that the increase in precipitation in Verenia will cease.

This option discusses future predictions rather than addressing the current situation. While it may imply that the current increase in precipitation is not sustainable, it does not explain why flooding has not increased alongside the precipitation that has already been observed.

D) Because Verenia has few inhabitants, flooding there seldom leads to loss of human life.

This option is relevant to the consequences of flooding but does not clarify the relationship between the observed increase in precipitation and the stability of flooding levels. It does not resolve the discrepancy as it shifts focus to human impact rather than the hydrological dynamics at play.

E) Very few of the streams and rivers in Verenia are suitable for damming.

While this statement provides information about the topography and water management practices in Verenia, it does not directly address the precipitation and flooding relationship. The unsuitability for damming may influence how water is managed, but it does not explain why flooding has not increased despite higher precipitation.

Conclusion

Option A effectively resolves the discrepancy between increased precipitation and stable flooding levels in Verenia by indicating that the timing of the precipitation plays a crucial role in absorption and runoff. All other options either provide irrelevant information or do not sufficiently explain the lack of correlation between increased water flow and flooding, making A the most compelling choice.

9. In evaluating the psychologist's recommendation and its rationale, which of the following would be most useful to know?

Answer: B

Explanation:

Understanding the Applicability of the Study's Results

Knowing whether the results of the study can be applied to children's reading of a textbook is essential for evaluating the psychologist's recommendation. This information would clarify if the proposed techniques and visual materials are effective in the specific context of educational settings.

A) What types of subject matter challenge schoolchildren's powers of concentration

While understanding the types of subject matter that challenge concentration can be informative, it does not directly address the applicability of the study's findings to reading textbooks. This option may provide context but lacks the direct relevance needed to evaluate the recommendation accurately.

B) Whether the results of the study can be applied to children's reading of a textbook

This option is crucial as it directly assesses the relevance of the study's findings to the educational context. If the results can be applied to how children read textbooks, then the psychologist's recommendation regarding concentration techniques and visual materials becomes significantly more valid and actionable.

C) Whether the lessons contained in children's textbooks can be adequately conveyed by means of pictures

While this option considers the effectiveness of visual materials, it does not address the broader applicability of the study's results to reading comprehension and concentration. Understanding the conveyance of lessons through pictures is useful but does not directly evaluate the recommendation's efficacy.

D) What percentage of the subjects in the study succeeded in solving the complex problem

This option provides statistical insight into the study's outcomes but does not inform the relevance of these findings to children's textbook reading. Success rates alone do not help assess the applicability of concentration techniques in an educational context.

E) Whether the previously taught concentration techniques actually increased schoolchildren's concentration

This option is relevant but focuses on the effectiveness of the techniques rather than their applicability to reading contexts. While knowing the effectiveness is important, it does not directly evaluate how the study's results relate to children's reading of textbooks.

Conclusion

Option B is the most pertinent choice, as it directly evaluates the applicability of the study's findings to children's reading of textbooks. The other options, while informative, do not provide the necessary insight to assess the psychologist's recommendations effectively. Understanding whether the study's results can transfer to educational practices is crucial for implementing effective strategies to improve children's concentration.

10. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

Answer: B

Explanation:

Profit margins on cigarettes for manufacturers, wholesalers, and retailers are so low at present that future reductions in the profit margins on a pack of cigarettes are out of the question.

This statement strengthens the argument by highlighting that if profit margins are already low, it becomes unlikely that manufacturers will absorb the tax increases without passing them on to consumers, thereby supporting the anticipated increase in cigarette prices.

A) In the past, when cigarette prices have dropped temporarily in Coponia, the sales of cigarettes have not always risen.

This option does not directly support the argument regarding the impact of a tax increase on future sales. It focuses on past sales behavior in response to price decreases rather than the effects of price increases due to tax hikes.

B) Profit margins on cigarettes for manufacturers, wholesalers, and retailers are so low at present that future reductions in the profit margins on a pack of cigarettes are out of the question.

This option directly strengthens the argument by indicating that manufacturers will likely pass on the tax increase to consumers, which supports the claim that the tax hike will lead to a decrease in cigarette sales.

C) Cigarette manufacturers in Coponia had expected the upcoming increase in the cigarette tax to be no more than 7 percent.

While this statement addresses manufacturers' expectations regarding the tax increase, it does not strengthen the argument about the relationship between price increases and sales decreases. It may even weaken the argument, suggesting that the anticipated tax hike may not be significant enough to affect sales.

D) At present, the price of a pack of cigarettes in Coponia includes taxes that amount to less than 10 percent of the total selling price.

This information does not support the argument since it does not provide insight into how the upcoming tax increase will affect sales. It merely states the current tax level without establishing a correlation with consumer behavior in response to price changes.

E) Some of the revenues from the tax increase will be used to compensate public health-care agencies for the expenses they incur in treating smoking-related illnesses.

While this option discusses the allocation of tax revenues, it does not strengthen the argument regarding how the tax increase will impact cigarette sales. It does not address consumer behavior or price elasticity in relation to the tax.

Conclusion

Option B is the most effective in strengthening the argument, as it clearly connects the low profit margins to the likelihood of price increases following the tax hike, reinforcing the claim that cigarette sales will decrease. The other options either fail to relate directly to the impact of the tax on sales or provide irrelevant information, thus not contributing to the argument's strength.