HESI A2 Reading Exams — HESI A2 Reading Practice Test
1. As used in the last sentence of this paragraph, the term 'concomitant' means
Answer: D
Concomitant means accompanying.
In the context of the extract, 'concomitant' refers to problems that occur alongside alcohol abuse, indicating that these issues accompany or are associated with the primary concern of alcohol consumption.
A) quiet
This option is incorrect because 'quiet' does not relate to the meaning of 'concomitant.' The term does not imply anything about silence or a lack of action; rather, it describes the relationship between problems that arise together.
B) unpredictable
This option is also incorrect as 'unpredictable' suggests a lack of certainty or consistency, which does not align with the definition of 'concomitant.' The term instead implies a consistent association, rather than unpredictability.
C) separate
This option is incorrect because 'separate' implies isolation or independence from other issues. In contrast, 'concomitant' denotes a connection or relationship between problems, showing that they exist together rather than apart.
D) accompanying
This is the correct option, as 'accompanying' accurately captures the essence of 'concomitant.' In the extract, it describes how issues such as drunken driving and domestic abuse occur alongside alcohol abuse, illustrating their interconnected nature.
Conclusion
The term 'concomitant' is best defined as 'accompanying' in this context, as it highlights the relationship between alcohol abuse and its associated problems. The other options fail to convey this essential connection, making D the only appropriate choice. Understanding this term is crucial for grasping the implications of alcohol abuse discussed in the extract.
2. In the above passage, the word 'subjective' refers to test questions that:
Answer: D
Subjective test questions require you to write your own answer.
Subjective test questions necessitate that students express their thoughts and knowledge in their own words, often in the format of essays or detailed responses.
A) Allow you to choose an answer
This option is incorrect because subjective questions do not typically provide multiple-choice answers. Instead, they require students to generate their own responses based on their understanding of the material.
B) Are matching
Matching questions involve pairing items from two lists and are not considered subjective. They require recognition rather than the expression of knowledge and understanding, which is characteristic of subjective questions.
C) Are true or false
True or false questions are objective in nature, as they have definitive answers that the student must identify. This format does not involve the student’s own written expression, which is essential in subjective testing.
D) Require you to write your own answer
This option is correct because subjective questions ask students to articulate their understanding and viewpoints in their own words, demonstrating a deeper engagement with the material.
Conclusion
The correct answer, option D, accurately captures the essence of subjective test questions, which demand personal expression and argumentation. In contrast, options A, B, and C are misaligned with the definition of subjective assessments, as they involve predetermined responses rather than the open-ended writing that characterizes subjective tests.
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
Answer: D
Why the British government refused Daylight Savings Time is NOT mentioned in the passage.
The passage discusses various aspects of Daylight Savings Time (DST), including its history and implementation, but it does not provide specific reasons for the British government's refusal of the initial proposal for DST.
A) The cause of jet lag
The passage clearly mentions that moving suddenly from one time zone to another can cause jet lag, leading to feelings of tiredness and disrupted sleep. Therefore, this option is incorrect as it is explicitly discussed in the text.
B) The amount of daylight at the tropics
The passage describes that countries located in the tropics receive a consistent amount of daylight throughout the year, with the Sun rising at 6 AM and setting at 6 PM. This information is provided in the extract, making this option incorrect as well.
C) Why the time readjustment will happen
The passage explains that the clock readjustment occurs to maximize daylight exposure during different seasons. This rationale is directly linked to the practice of Daylight Savings Time. Thus, this option is also incorrect because it is mentioned in the text.
D) Why the British government refused Daylight Savings Time
The passage states that the British government deemed the proposal unnecessary but does not elaborate on the specific reasons behind this decision. Therefore, this option is correct since it is not detailed in the extract.
Conclusion
Option D is the only choice that is not mentioned in the passage, as it lacks any elaboration on the reasons for the British government's refusal of Daylight Savings Time. In contrast, the other options are all supported by the information provided in the text, confirming their relevance and correctness.
4. What is the meaning of the word 'ideal' as it is used in the first paragraph?
Answer: D
Perfect
In the context of the extract, 'ideal' refers to an environment that is considered the best possible for supporting the growth and survival of many microbes. This aligns closely with the definition of 'perfect,' indicating that the human body provides optimal conditions for these organisms.
A) Thoughtful
The term 'thoughtful' implies consideration or careful thought, which does not relate to the context of an environment that supports microbial growth. Therefore, this choice is not applicable in this context.
B) Confined
'Confined' suggests a restricted or limited space, which is contrary to the notion of an environment being ideal for growth. The extract describes the human body as providing an environment favorable for microbes, not a confined one; thus, this option is incorrect.
C) Hostile
Describing an environment as 'hostile' would mean it is unfavorable or dangerous for life, which contradicts the idea of being 'ideal' for microbes. The extract clearly states that the human body is a suitable habitat for these organisms, making this option incorrect.
D) Perfect
'Perfect' accurately describes the human body as an environment that is exceptionally suitable for microbes, aligning with the usage of 'ideal' in the extract. This option captures the essence of providing optimal conditions for microbial survival and growth.
Conclusion
The term 'ideal' in the extract clearly signifies the characteristics of being 'perfect' for microbes, emphasizing the suitability of the human body as a habitat for these organisms. The other options—thoughtful, confined, and hostile—fail to capture this meaning, making 'perfect' the definitive correct answer.
5. What is the definition of the term 'brittle'?
Answer: B
Brittle means easily broken.
The term 'brittle' refers to a material that is easily broken when subjected to stress or force. In contrast to flexible materials, brittle substances do not deform significantly before breaking.
A) Flexible and resilient
This option is incorrect because 'flexible' refers to the ability of a material to bend without breaking, while 'resilient' indicates the capacity to recover quickly from deformation. Brittle materials, by definition, do not possess these qualities as they break rather than bend.
B) Easily broken
This option is correct as it directly defines 'brittle.' A brittle material shatters or breaks under stress without significant deformation, which aligns perfectly with the definition.
C) Strong and durable
This option is incorrect because 'strong and durable' describes materials that can withstand significant force and wear without breaking. Brittle materials lack this strength and tend to fail easily under pressure.
D) Thick and heavy
This option is incorrect as 'thick and heavy' relates to the physical dimensions and weight of a material, not its structural integrity. Brittle materials can be thick or thin, but their defining characteristic is their tendency to break easily.
Conclusion
The correct definition of 'brittle' is that it means easily broken, which accurately reflects the characteristics of materials that lack the capacity to endure stress without fracturing. All other options fail to capture this essential quality, either misrepresenting the properties of materials or describing unrelated characteristics.
6. In the above passage, the word 'subjective' refers to test questions that
Answer: D
Subjective exams require you to write your own answer.
Subjective tests are characterized by the necessity for students to formulate their responses, which involves composing answers in their own words, as opposed to selecting from predetermined options.
A) are matching.
Matching questions are objective in nature, as they typically require students to pair items from two columns. This format does not allow for personal expression or individualized answers, which is a key feature of subjective tests.
B) allow you to choose an answer.
Choosing an answer implies a selection from multiple options, which is characteristic of objective tests like multiple choice or true/false questions. Subjective tests, in contrast, necessitate that students generate their own answers, rather than selecting from given choices.
C) are true or false.
True or false questions are also objective assessments that require students to decide between two options rather than articulate their own thoughts or arguments. This format lacks the depth of response and personal insight that subjective tests demand.
D) require you to write your own answer.
This option accurately captures the essence of subjective tests, which require students to articulate their understanding and knowledge through written responses. The passage emphasizes that subjective exams allow for broader expression and organization of thoughts, thereby highlighting the importance of individual written answers.
Conclusion
The correct answer, D, is definitive because it aligns perfectly with the definition of subjective tests as outlined in the extract, where students must compose their own responses. Options A, B, and C fail to meet this criterion as they describe objective formats that do not allow for personal expression. Thus, only option D accurately reflects the nature of subjective examinations.
7. How often are the Summer Olympic Games held?
Answer: B
The Summer Olympic Games are held every four years.
The Summer Olympic Games take place once every four years, allowing countries to showcase their best athletes on a global stage. This schedule is a significant tradition, establishing the Games as a major international event.
A) Every two years.
This option is incorrect because the Summer Olympic Games are not held every two years. Instead, they maintain a four-year cycle, which distinguishes them from other sporting events, such as the FIFA World Cup, which occurs every four years as well.
B) Every four years.
This option is correct as it accurately reflects the established tradition of the Summer Olympic Games. The Games are organized quadrennially, allowing for extensive preparation and participation from countries around the world.
C) Annually.
This choice is incorrect because the Summer Olympic Games are not held on an annual basis. An annual schedule would not allow for the extensive planning and preparation required for such a large-scale international event.
D) Once a decade.
This option is also incorrect, as the Summer Olympic Games occur every four years, not once every ten years. A decade-long gap would significantly diminish the continuity and excitement surrounding the event.
Conclusion
The correct answer is that the Summer Olympic Games are held every four years, a tradition that allows for thorough preparation and international participation. Other options fail to capture the established frequency of the Games, which is a cornerstone of their global significance and cultural impact.
8. What is the primary purpose of the author in writing the essay?
Answer: C
The primary purpose of the author in writing the essay is to inform.
The author aims to educate the reader about the immune system, detailing its components, functions, and the ongoing research in the field. This informative approach is evident throughout the essay as it presents factual information without an agenda to persuade or entertain.
A) to persuade
This option is incorrect because the essay does not attempt to convince the reader of a particular viewpoint or argument. Instead, it focuses on providing information about the immune system and its complexities without advocating for any specific action or belief.
B) to analyze
While the essay discusses various aspects of the immune system, it does not primarily focus on breaking down or evaluating specific elements in a critical manner. Instead, it presents information in a straightforward way, making this option less fitting compared to the correct one.
C) to inform
This is the correct choice as the primary aim of the essay is to provide clear and factual information regarding the immune system. The author explains its functions, the types of invaders it protects against, and recent advancements in research, all of which serve to inform the reader.
D) to entertain
This option is incorrect as the essay does not contain narrative elements or humorous content typically associated with entertainment. Its focus is on education and information delivery rather than engaging the reader purely for enjoyment.
Conclusion
The essay's clear intent to educate the reader about the immune system confirms that the primary purpose is to inform. Options A, B, and D fail to capture the essence of the author’s goal, which is to share knowledge about a complex biological system rather than to persuade, analyze, or entertain.
9. What is the closest meaning of the word 'concept' in line 16?
Answer: D
Thought
In this context, the word 'concept' refers to an abstract idea or notion, which aligns closely with the meaning of 'thought.' The passage discusses the idea of a "melting pot," which is fundamentally an intellectual or conceptual framework for understanding the assimilation of diverse cultures.
A) Location
This option is incorrect because 'location' refers to a physical place or position, which does not relate to the abstract nature of a 'concept.' The passage is discussing an idea rather than a geographical area.
B) Type
While 'type' denotes a category or classification, it does not capture the essence of 'concept.' A 'concept' is more about an overarching idea or principle rather than merely categorizing something, making this option less fitting.
C) Complexity
This option suggests a level of intricacy or difficulty, which does not align with the meaning of 'concept' in the context provided. A 'concept' can be simple or complex, but it primarily represents an idea or thought rather than its complexity.
D) Thought
This option is correct as 'thought' encompasses the essence of what a 'concept' represents—an idea or mental representation. In the passage, the term refers to the intellectual framework of the "melting pot," which is fundamentally a thought or notion about cultural assimilation.
Conclusion
The correct answer is 'thought' because it best captures the abstract nature of 'concept' in the context of the passage, which discusses the idea of a melting pot for various cultures. Other options, such as 'location,' 'type,' and 'complexity,' fail to convey the same intellectual meaning, making them less appropriate choices.
10. The information presented is
Answer: C
The information presented is slanted against people with piercing voices.
The extract indicates that harsh voice qualities, such as being shrill or piercing, are generally perceived negatively and can make speaking uncomfortable for listeners. This suggests a bias against those who possess piercing voices, as it highlights the undesirable effects of such qualities on communication.
A) Slanted in favor of newscasters
This option is incorrect because the extract does not present any positive attributes regarding newscasters. Instead, it focuses on the negative impact of voice qualities, suggesting that harshness is undesirable, which does not support newscasters.
B) Slanted against people with deep voices
This option is also incorrect. The extract does not criticize deep voices; rather, it implies that higher-pitched voices are often harsher and less desirable. Deep voices are not mentioned as being problematic in this context.
C) Slanted against people with piercing voices
This option is correct as the extract explicitly states that harsh voice qualities, including piercing tones, are unpleasant and can cause discomfort in listeners. It indicates a negative perception of this vocal quality.
D) Balanced in its approach
This option is incorrect because the extract presents a clear bias against certain voice qualities, particularly those that are harsh or piercing. A balanced approach would not favor or disfavor any particular vocal quality, but the text clearly highlights the negative aspects of harsh tones.
Conclusion
The extract's focus on the negative perceptions of harsh and piercing voice qualities establishes a clear bias against individuals who possess such vocal traits. While it discusses the challenges that higher-pitched voices face, the emphasis on discomfort and unpleasantness associated with harshness demonstrates that option C is definitively correct, while the other options fail to accurately reflect the extract's content.