GRE General Test Exams — GRE Practice Questions Quantitative Reasoning
Answer: B
Television was ephemeral
Television was characterized by its transient nature, as episodes were often viewed only once when they aired, making them fleeting experiences for viewers.
A) ubiquitous
This option implies that television was present everywhere or widely available. While television has been a common medium, the context suggests that the focus is on the nature of episodes rather than their availability, making this option incorrect.
B) ephemeral
This choice accurately reflects the fleeting quality of television episodes, indicating that they were temporary and not easily accessible after their initial airing. This aligns perfectly with the context provided in the statement.
C) inconsequential
This option suggests that television was of little importance or significance. However, the context does not imply that television lacked value; rather, it emphasizes the limited opportunity to view episodes, thus making this option incorrect.
D) lionized
To be lionized means to be treated with great respect or celebrated. This does not fit the context of discussing the nature of television episodes, which were not typically celebrated for their permanence, rendering this option incorrect.
E) quotidian
This term refers to something that is commonplace or ordinary. While television could be considered a regular part of daily life, the focus here is on the nature of episodes, making this option unsuitable for the context.
Conclusion
The correct answer, "ephemeral," precisely captures the transient nature of television episodes as described in the statement. All other options fail to align with the central idea of temporality and accessibility emphasized in the text. Thus, "ephemeral" is the only fitting choice.
Answer: D
Coagulation factors are useful proteins whose simple names (many are known only by Roman numerals) belie their importance and the specificity of their roles in the thinning and clotting of blood.
The simple names of coagulation factors, often represented by Roman numerals, obscure the true significance and specificity of their functions in blood coagulation.
A) nullify
This option implies that the names would cancel out or negate the importance of the coagulation factors, which is not accurate. The names do not diminish their value; instead, they fail to represent the complexity of their functions.
B) obviate
To obviate means to remove a need or difficulty. This does not apply here since the names of the factors do not eliminate the necessity or importance of understanding their roles in clotting; rather, they simply oversimplify them.
C) mitigate
Mitigating would suggest that the names lessen or diminish the significance of the factors. However, the names do not reduce their importance; they merely do not convey the full extent of their critical roles in coagulation.
D) belie
Choosing "belie" accurately reflects that the simple names of coagulation factors give a misleading impression about their true significance and specific functions within the blood clotting process.
E) mask
While "mask" implies that the names conceal the importance, it does not capture the nuance of misleading representation that "belie" conveys. Masking suggests a more direct concealment rather than a misrepresentation.
F) accentuate
Accentuate means to make something more noticeable or prominent, which contradicts the notion that the simple names obscure the importance of the coagulation factors. The names do not highlight their critical roles; instead, they diminish the perception of their complexity.
Conclusion
The correct answer, "belie," emphasizes that the simple nomenclature used for coagulation factors misrepresents their true significance and specific roles in blood clotting. All other options either misinterpret the relationship between the names and the factors’ importance or do not adequately reflect the misleading nature of the names. Thus, "belie" stands out as the most accurate choice in this context.
Answer: C
Some expressions were difficult because they were so idiosyncratic to the person making the expression.
Facial expressions can often be unique to individuals, making them challenging to interpret for others. The term "idiosyncratic" accurately reflects this uniqueness in expression that varies from person to person.
A) habitual for
This option suggests that expressions are routine or regular for the person making them, which does not capture the idea that some expressions might be unique or personal. Therefore, "habitual for" does not align with the context of the difficulty in interpreting expressions.
B) customary for
While "customary for" implies that expressions may be typical for a certain person, it lacks the nuance of individuality. This option does not convey the idea of personal uniqueness necessary to explain the difficulty in interpretation.
C) idiosyncratic to
This choice indicates that expressions are distinctive or specific to the individual, which directly relates to the challenge of interpretation. It emphasizes the personal nature of expressions, making it the most suitable option.
D) opaque to
The term "opaque to" implies that expressions are unclear or hard to understand, but it does not address the uniqueness of the expressions themselves. This option does not effectively communicate the reason behind the difficulty in interpretation.
E) inoffensive to
"Offensive" implies a lack of aggression or insult, which is irrelevant in the context of interpreting facial expressions. This option does not relate to the ability to understand expressions and thus fails to provide any meaningful connection.
Conclusion
The correct answer, "idiosyncratic to," highlights the personal and unique nature of facial expressions, making them difficult to interpret. All other options either miss the aspect of individual uniqueness or do not pertain to the interpretation challenge, confirming that they are not appropriate choices for this context.
4. The primary purpose of the passage about domesticated crops is to
Answer: D
Consider whether the plant-vigor hypothesis might explain recent research findings concerning the parasitization of certain herbivorous moths.
The primary purpose of the passage is to explore how the plant-vigor hypothesis could provide insights into recent findings related to the parasitization of specific herbivorous moths. This focus on research findings aligns with the key themes presented in the text.
A) Suggest that selection for gigantism in plants may have certain unexpected long-term benefits
This option is incorrect as the passage does not address the selection for gigantism in plants or its potential benefits. Instead, it concentrates on the implications of the plant-vigor hypothesis for understanding relationships between plants and herbivorous moths.
B) Account for previously overlooked correlation between insect-ivore egg-laying on flowers and flower size
While this option mentions egg-laying and flower size, it does not capture the main focus of the passage. The text does not primarily discuss correlations between these elements but rather emphasizes the plant-vigor hypothesis and its relevance to herbivorous moths.
C) Challenge the idea that domestication of certain crops may contribute to changes in species that depend on those crops
This choice is also incorrect, as the passage does not challenge the domestication theory or its effects on dependent species. Instead, it focuses on specific research findings related to the plant-vigor hypothesis and herbivorous moths.
D) Consider whether the plant-vigor hypothesis might explain recent research findings concerning the parasitization of certain herbivorous moths
This is the correct answer because the passage directly addresses the plant-vigor hypothesis and its potential role in explaining the interactions between plants and herbivorous moths, highlighting its relevance to recent research.
Conclusion
The correct answer, D, effectively encapsulates the main objective of the passage by linking the plant-vigor hypothesis to specific research findings. In contrast, options A, B, and C fail to address the central theme of the passage, thus highlighting how D stands out as the most relevant choice concerning the discussion of domesticated crops and their ecological implications.
Answer: A
The ratio of the length of the shorter side to the length of the longer side is 2 to 3.
To determine the ratio of the shorter side to the longer side of the rectangular garden, we find that the dimensions of the garden are 6 meters and 3 meters, yielding a ratio of 2 to 3.
A) 2 to 3
This option is correct because the dimensions of the garden can be derived from the equations of perimeter and area. The perimeter is given by 2(length + width) = 28 meters, which simplifies to length + width = 14 meters. The area is given by length × width = 45 square meters. Solving these equations leads to the dimensions being 6 meters and 3 meters, resulting in the ratio of the shorter side to the longer side as 3:6 or simplified to 2:3.
B) 3 to 5
This option is incorrect because it does not reflect the calculated dimensions of the garden. The ratio of 3 to 5 implies that if the shorter side were 3 units, the longer side would be 5 units, which does not match the actual dimensions derived from the perimeter and area provided.
C) 4 to 5
This option is also incorrect. A ratio of 4 to 5 suggests that if the shorter side were 4 units, the longer side would be 5 units. However, the actual dimensions of the garden do not correspond to this ratio, as calculated from the given perimeter and area.
D) 5 to 9
This option is incorrect as well. The ratio of 5 to 9 would indicate that if the shorter side were 5 units, the longer side would be 9 units. This is inconsistent with the established dimensions of the garden, which are 3 meters and 6 meters, leading to a ratio of 2 to 3.
Conclusion
The correct answer is 2 to 3 because it accurately represents the ratio derived from the garden's dimensions of 3 meters and 6 meters. All other options fail to match the calculated dimensions based on the garden's perimeter and area, confirming that they are not viable answers to the question.
Answer: B
1 lempira is approximately 0.34 quetzales.
To determine the value of 1 lempira in quetzales, we can use the exchange rates provided. Since 1 United States dollar equals 22.48 lempiras and 7.55 quetzales, we can set up the conversion as follows: 1 lempira = (1 USD / 22.48 lempiras) * 7.55 quetzales, which calculates to approximately 0.334 quetzales, rounding to 0.34.
A) 0.07
This option is incorrect because it significantly underestimates the value of 1 lempira in quetzales. The calculations based on the given exchange rates do not support such a low conversion.
B) 0.34
This option is correct as it accurately reflects the calculated value of 1 lempira in quetzales. The conversion using the provided exchange rates shows that 1 lempira is worth approximately 0.34 quetzales, confirming this choice.
C) 2.98
This option is incorrect as it overestimates the value of 1 lempira in quetzales. The calculations indicate a much lower value, making this option inconsistent with the exchange rates provided.
D) 14.93
This option is incorrect because it greatly exceeds the actual value of 1 lempira in quetzales. The calculations show that the true conversion is far less than this figure, rendering this choice invalid.
E) 169.72
This option is incorrect as it is an exaggerated value that does not align with the calculations derived from the exchange rates provided. The actual value is significantly lower than this number.
Conclusion
The correct answer, 0.34 quetzales, is derived from the accurate conversion of exchange rates, confirming its validity. The other options fail due to either underestimating or overestimating the value of 1 lempira, demonstrating a lack of alignment with the given data.
Answer: C
Two 2-digit positive integers meet the criteria.
The 2-digit positive integers that have a remainder of 3 when divided by both 10 and 6 include 13 and 63. Thus, there are exactly two such integers.
A) None
This option is incorrect because there are indeed 2-digit integers that satisfy both conditions. Specifically, 13 and 63 meet the requirement of having a remainder of 3 when divided by both 10 and 6.
B) One
This option is also incorrect. While one might assume that only one number fits the criteria, there are actually two integers (13 and 63) that satisfy the conditions set by the question.
C) Two
This option is correct as there are two 2-digit integers, 13 and 63, that have a remainder of 3 when divided by both 10 and 6.
D) Three
This option is incorrect as there are only two integers that meet the specified conditions. No additional integers beyond 13 and 63 fulfill both remainder requirements.
E) Four
This option is incorrect because there are not four integers that satisfy the given conditions. The only relevant integers are 13 and 63.
Conclusion
The correct answer is two because the only two-digit integers that leave a remainder of 3 when divided by both 10 and 6 are 13 and 63. All other options fail as they either overestimate or underestimate the actual count of qualifying integers.
Answer: C
Silko relied more on existing documents than on memories of oral performance for these stories.
The author emphasizes that Silko's use of Laguna stories in Ceremony often involves direct quotations from ethnographic print texts, suggesting that her reliance was more on documented sources rather than solely on her own recollection of oral traditions.
A) help distinguish between those stories that Silko took directly from ethnographic print texts and those that she remembered from earlier oral performances
This option is incorrect because the author does not focus on differentiating between stories taken from print texts and those remembered from oral performances. Instead, the emphasis is on Silko's predominant use of ethnographic documents.
B) indicate that there were certain ethnographic print texts that Silko was especially interested in
This option does not accurately reflect the author's intent. The passage does not describe Silko's specific interests in certain texts but rather highlights her broader reliance on existing ethnographic sources for the stories in Ceremony.
C) support the notion that Silko relied more on existing documents than on memories of oral performance for these stories
This option is correct as it aligns with the author's argument that Silko's integration of Laguna stories was largely based on preexisting ethnographic texts rather than solely her own memories from oral traditions, thereby reshaping the understanding of her work.
D) help distinguish between instances in which Silko might have used clan material improperly and those instances in which she clearly did not
This option is incorrect as the passage does not aim to categorize Silko's use of material in terms of proper or improper usage. The focus is rather on her reliance on documented stories rather than the implications of her methods.
E) make the point that print texts generally provide more accurate versions of the stories than do memories of oral performances of the stories
This option is not supported by the passage, as it does not claim that print texts are inherently more accurate than oral performances. The emphasis is on Silko's choice of sources rather than a judgment of their accuracy.
Conclusion
Option C is definitively correct because it accurately captures the author's assertion regarding Silko's reliance on ethnographic texts over her memories. All other options misinterpret the context or focus of the argument, failing to reflect the main point about Silko's method of incorporating Laguna stories into her work.
9. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about Thorndike's work with puzzle boxes?
Answer: A
It supports the idea that apes respond to observable cues rather than engage in reasoning.
The passage indicates that Thorndike's work, particularly with puzzle boxes, aligns with the idea that apes respond to observable cues without a genuine understanding of causality. This is contrasted with Köhler's emphasis on insightful problem-solving.
A) It supports the idea that apes respond to observable cues rather than engage in reasoning.
This option is correct as the passage describes Thorndike’s approach, which focused on trial-and-error learning based on observable stimuli. It implies that apes may not engage in deeper reasoning, supporting the notion of associative learning rather than cognitive processing.
B) It is currently one of the major influences on those interested in apes and cognition.
While Thorndike's work is historically significant, the passage does not suggest that it remains a major influence today. Instead, it highlights its role in the past, specifically in contrast with Köhler’s insights, without asserting its continuing relevance.
C) It forced Köhler to rethink his emphasis on the insightful nature of tool use in apes.
The passage does not indicate that Thorndike's work forced Köhler to rethink his views. Rather, it presents their approaches as distinct, with Köhler maintaining his focus on insightful problem-solving and not being directly influenced by Thorndike's methods.
D) It anticipated the work of van Lawick-Goodall on cognition apes.
This option is incorrect as the passage does not imply that Thorndike’s work predicted or anticipated van Lawick-Goodall’s findings. The discoveries made by van Lawick-Goodall are framed as significant in their own right, independent of Thorndike's earlier research.
E) It led to the questioning of a long-held assumption about human nature.
The focus of the passage is on tool use in apes rather than directly addressing human nature. Although the discovery of tool use in apes did question assumptions regarding humanity, it is not specifically attributed to Thorndike's work with puzzle boxes.
Conclusion
Option A is definitively correct as it aligns with the passage's depiction of Thorndike's methodology, emphasizing observable cues in learning. All other options fail to accurately reflect the content and implications presented in the passage, making A the only choice that directly corresponds to the ideas discussed.
Answer: D
The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Without specific measurements for triangle ABC or the radius of the inscribed circle, it is impossible to definitively compare the area of triangle ABC multiplied by five to the area of the circular region.
A) Quantity A is greater.
This option cannot be definitively supported because we lack the necessary dimensions of triangle ABC and the radius of the circle. It is possible that the area of the triangle multiplied by five could exceed the area of the circle, but without concrete values, this statement remains unverified.
B) Quantity B is greater.
Similar to option A, we cannot assert that the area of the circular region is greater than five times the area of triangle ABC without specific measurements. The relationship could be true under certain conditions, but it cannot be confirmed with the given information.
C) The two quantities are equal.
This option also cannot be confirmed without knowing the exact areas of both the triangle and the circle. The quantities could potentially be equal, but this is purely speculative without measurements to establish a relationship.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
This option is accurate because the lack of specific dimensions for triangle ABC and the radius of the circle prevents any definitive conclusions about the relationship between the two quantities.
Conclusion
The correct answer is D because the information provided does not allow for a conclusive comparison between the area of triangle ABC multiplied by five and the area of the circular region. All other options fail to establish a valid relationship due to the absence of necessary data.