GRE General Test Exams — GRE Quantitative Reasoning Practice Problems
1. The author mentions 'women's daily realities' primarily in order to
Answer: C
The author mentions 'women's daily realities' primarily to identify a shortcoming of a particular conceptual framework.
The reference to 'women's daily realities' serves to highlight the limitations of the antiquated 'separate spheres' schema, which inaccurately depicted women's roles in food preparation as isolated from the broader context of food production.
A) point out an implication of a claim made earlier in the passage
This option is incorrect because while the author does make claims regarding the separate spheres schema, the mention of 'women's daily realities' specifically critiques the framework itself rather than pointing out implications of earlier claims.
B) emphasize a common feature of apparently diverse activities
This choice is not suitable as the author does not aim to identify commonalities among diverse activities. Instead, the focus is on the inadequacies of the separate spheres concept in recognizing the multifaceted roles women play in food production and preparation.
C) identify a shortcoming of a particular conceptual framework
This option is correct because the author uses 'women's daily realities' to illustrate the failures of the separate spheres schema, which fails to account for the significant involvement of women in food production, thereby revealing its limitations.
D) identify certain contradictory views about women's labor
This choice is incorrect as the passage does not delve into contradictory views about women’s labor. Rather, it critiques the oversimplified framework that underrepresents women's contributions.
E) reinforce a view summarized at the beginning of the passage
This option is not accurate because while the author summarizes views at the beginning, the mention of 'women's daily realities' serves to critique the earlier presented framework rather than to reinforce it.
Conclusion
The correct answer, C, effectively underscores the shortcomings of the separate spheres schema by emphasizing women's actual roles in food production, which contradicts the traditional dichotomy. All other options fail to capture the essence of this critique, demonstrating how outdated conceptual frameworks inadequately represent the realities of women's labor in the context of cooking and food preparation.
Answer: A,D
Profane and desecrate a masterpiece.
The architect insisted that he knew better than to profane or desecrate a masterpiece, indicating a deep respect for the integrity of the library and its significance.
A) profane
To profane means to treat something sacred with disrespect. In this context, the architect is expressing a strong commitment to preserving the library's revered status, making this option correct. The use of "profane" directly aligns with the concerns raised about the renovation diminishing the library's value.
B) overlook
Overlook means to fail to notice or consider something. This option does not fit the context of the architect's assertion, as it does not convey a sense of disrespect or harm to the library's integrity. Instead, it implies neglect, which is not the architect's intent.
C) censure
Censure refers to expressing severe disapproval. While it is an important concept in criticism, it does not connect to the notion of damaging or disrespecting a masterpiece. Thus, this option is not appropriate in this context.
D) desecrate
Desecrate means to violate the sacredness of something. This option is also correct as it encapsulates the architect's concern about harming the library's esteemed reputation during renovations. It reinforces the idea of protecting the library’s artistic and cultural significance.
E) festoon
Festoon means to decorate or adorn, often in a garish way. This choice does not pertain to the idea of harming or disrespecting a masterpiece. Instead, it suggests decoration, which does not align with the architect's intention to maintain the library's reverence.
F) neglect
Neglect means to fail to care for something properly. While it indicates a lack of attention, it does not carry the weight of disrespect implied by profaning or desecrating. Therefore, it does not fit the architect's assertion about the importance of preserving the library.
Conclusion
The architect's insistence on not profaning or desecrating a masterpiece underscores his commitment to honoring the library's significance. Both "profane" and "desecrate" reflect concerns about maintaining the library's integrity amidst renovation plans, while the other options either miss the mark or do not convey the same level of respect for the masterpiece in question.
Answer: A
The ratio of the length of the shorter side to the length of the longer side is 2 to 3.
To find the ratio of the lengths of the sides of the rectangular garden, we can denote the length and width as \( l \) and \( w \) respectively. Given the perimeter (28 meters) and area (45 square meters), we can set up the equations: \( 2(l + w) = 28 \) and \( l \times w = 45 \). Solving these yields the dimensions that correspond to a ratio of 2 to 3.
A) 2 to 3
This option is correct as it accurately represents the ratio of the shorter side to the longer side of the garden. After solving the equations derived from the perimeter and area, we find the dimensions to be 6 meters (shorter side) and 9 meters (longer side), giving a ratio of \( \frac{6}{9} = \frac{2}{3} \).
B) 3 to 5
This option is incorrect. A ratio of 3 to 5 would suggest that if the shorter side is 3 units, the longer side would be 5 units, which does not match the dimensions derived from the given perimeter and area. The actual dimensions do not support this ratio.
C) 4 to 5
This option is also incorrect. A ratio of 4 to 5 would imply a relationship where the shorter side is 4 units and the longer side is 5 units. However, the calculated dimensions based on the garden's perimeter and area do not yield these values.
D) 5 to 9
This option is incorrect as well. While it suggests a possible ratio, it does not reflect the actual dimensions derived from the problem's conditions. The actual shorter and longer sides are 6 meters and 9 meters respectively, which do not correspond to this ratio.
Conclusion
The correct answer, 2 to 3, is confirmed by the calculated dimensions of the garden, which are 6 meters and 9 meters. All other options fail to accurately reflect the relationship between the shorter and longer sides based on the given perimeter and area constraints. Thus, option A stands out as the only valid ratio.
Answer: C
The two quantities are equal.
Both quantities A and B can be shown to be equal due to the specific construction of lists S and T. Since T is formed by adding 50 to each integer in S, the medians of the two combined lists will align appropriately.
A) Quantity A is greater.
This option is incorrect because the median of list R, which includes all integers from both S and T, will not exceed twice the median of S. In fact, the medians of the two lists are specifically linked due to the addition of a constant.
B) Quantity B is greater.
This option is also incorrect. The relationship between the medians of S and R ensures that Quantity B, which is twice the median of S, cannot be greater than Quantity A. The transformation of S into T maintains the overall balance of the data.
C) The two quantities are equal.
This option is correct because the median of list R, which combines S and T, will equal twice the median of S. The integers in T are symmetrically distributed about the median of S, which results in the combined median being precisely double that of S.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
This option is incorrect as the relationship can indeed be determined. Given the systematic addition of 50 to each integer in S to form T, we can definitively calculate the medians for both lists, confirming the equality.
Conclusion
The conclusion that the two quantities are equal is supported by the arithmetic and structural relationship between lists S and T. The median of R, which includes both lists, reflects the relationship created by the constant addition to each integer in S, confirming that Quantity A and Quantity B are equivalent.
Answer: C
Approximately 18 percent of all first-year students received a score of 85 or higher on the placement exam in 1994.
In 1994, it was reported that 20 percent of first-year students who took the placement exam scored 85 or higher. Given that this is a representative group, it can be inferred that approximately 18 percent of all first-year students achieved a similar score.
A) 30%
This option is incorrect as it overestimates the percentage of students who scored 85 or higher. The data indicates that only 20 percent of exam takers reached this score, making 30 percent an unrealistic figure based on the provided context.
B) 22%
While this option is a plausible estimate, it is still higher than the 20 percent figure provided for those who took the exam. The data does not support a higher percentage of all first-year students achieving scores over those who actually sat for the exam.
C) 18%
This option accurately reflects a reasonable estimate based on the information given. If 20 percent of the exam-taking population scored 85 or higher, and considering typical score distributions, it is logical to conclude that around 18 percent of the total first-year students would achieve this score.
D) 9%
This option is significantly lower than the data provided, indicating a misunderstanding of the score distribution. A figure of 9 percent does not align with the 20 percent of exam takers who scored 85 or higher.
E) 4.50%
This option is also incorrect as it suggests an even lower representation of students achieving a score of 85 or higher. It does not correlate with the 20 percent of those who took the exam, which indicates a lack of sufficient performance among the total first-year population.
Conclusion
The answer of 18 percent is the most accurate reflection of the data provided regarding first-year students' performance on the placement exam in 1994. All other options fail to accurately represent the situation outlined in the question, either by overestimating or underestimating the student performance based on the 20 percent statistic given.
Answer: A
The number of possible orderings of the labels for the remaining vertices is 7!
When one vertex of the octagon is labeled A, there are 7 remaining vertices (B, C, D, E, F, G, and H) that need to be labeled. The number of possible arrangements for these 7 vertices is given by 7 factorial (7!).
A) 7!
This option is correct because once one vertex is designated as A, there are exactly 7 remaining vertices that can be arranged in any order, which is calculated as 7!.
B) 8!
This option is incorrect as it represents the total arrangements of all 8 vertices without fixing any label. Since one vertex is already labeled A, calculating arrangements for all 8 vertices is not applicable.
C) 7!/8
This option is incorrect because it suggests a division of the arrangements by 8, which is not relevant to the problem. The total arrangements should simply account for the 7 remaining vertices.
D) 8!/7
This option is incorrect as it implies a calculation for the arrangements of all vertices divided by 7, which does not apply here. We only need the arrangements of the 7 vertices left after fixing A.
E) 8!/7!
This option is incorrect because it simplifies to 8, representing the number of ways to choose one vertex from 8, rather than the arrangements of the remaining 7 vertices.
Conclusion
The correct answer, 7!, accurately reflects the number of ways to arrange the remaining vertices after one vertex has been fixed as A. All other options fail to account for the specified condition and lead to incorrect calculations based on the initial configuration of the octagon.
Answer: C,F
Burnham detested the avant-garde.
Burnham's relationship with the avant-garde can be characterized by strong opposition, as he detested its principles. This perspective makes the choice of architects aligned with the avant-garde for Chicago's centennial celebration incongruous.
A) foreshadowed
This option incorrectly suggests that Burnham predicted or hinted at the avant-garde. In reality, his views were more oppositional, indicating that he did not support or pave the way for such movements.
B) avoided
While this option implies a distancing from the avant-garde, it does not fully capture the intensity of Burnham's feelings. Avoidance suggests a mild reluctance rather than the strong aversion that he actually held.
C) detested
This option accurately reflects Burnham's strong opposition to the avant-garde. His detestation signifies a fundamental disagreement with its ideals, thus making the choice of avant-garde architects for the centennial celebration a striking contradiction.
D) anticipated
This choice incorrectly implies that Burnham expected the avant-garde to emerge or develop, which does not align with his actual views. Anticipation suggests a level of acceptance or acknowledgment, contrary to his detesting stance.
E) satirized
While Burnham may have critiqued aspects of the avant-garde, this option does not encapsulate his broader feelings of detest. Satirization implies a level of engagement that is inconsistent with outright rejection.
F) abhorred
This option is synonymous with detested, reinforcing the idea that Burnham had a strong aversion to the avant-garde. Both terms indicate a profound disapproval, making this choice valid in the context of the question.
Conclusion
The correct answer underscores Burnham's strong aversion to the avant-garde, which is essential in understanding the incongruity of selecting avant-garde architects for the centennial celebration. Options C and F accurately convey the intensity of Burnham's feelings, while the other choices fail to reflect the depth of his opposition to the avant-garde. Thus, they do not appropriately address the question's context.
8. Which of the following most accurately characterizes the 'better-documented view'?
Answer: B
Climate variability during the late Holocene era was not globally synchronous.
The better-documented view indicates that climate variability in the late Holocene is characterized by multidecadal temperature anomalies that are region-specific rather than globally synchronous events. This reflects a significant shift from earlier beliefs about uniform global climate changes like the Little Ice Age and Medieval Warm Period.
A) Periods of cooling and warming throughout the Holocene have been characterized by small variations in temperature.
This option misrepresents the nature of climate variability during the Holocene. While it suggests that variations in temperature were small, the extract emphasizes that late Holocene climate variability is marked by significant multidecadal anomalies, indicating a broader range of temperature changes rather than just small variations.
B) Climate variability during the late Holocene era was not globally synchronous.
This option accurately reflects the extract's assertion that the understanding of climate variability has evolved. The new perspective acknowledges that late Holocene climate changes are region-specific, contrasting with earlier beliefs of global synchrony in climatic events.
C) The Little Ice Age and Medieval Warm Period were typical of periods of global climate change that have occurred within the last 11,000 years or so.
This choice incorrectly suggests that the Little Ice Age and Medieval Warm Period represent typical global climate changes. The extract highlights that these earlier notions have been replaced by an understanding of region-specific climate variability, thus making this statement inconsistent with the current view.
D) The notion that climate variability is region-specific rather than global is based on an inaccurate understanding of how large-scale climate systems interact.
This option contradicts the extract's position. It suggests that the understanding of region-specific climate variability is flawed, whereas the extract advocates for a more nuanced appreciation of how large-scale climate systems interact to create diverse climate conditions across different regions.
E) Large-scale climate systems have had much less effect on global climate than earlier research suggested.
This statement undermines the significance of large-scale climate systems, which the extract indicates are crucial for understanding climate variability. The appreciation for these systems has actually grown, rather than diminished, making this option incorrect.
Conclusion
Option B is definitively correct as it aligns with the current understanding that late Holocene climate variability is characterized by region-specific anomalies rather than global synchrony. All other options either misinterpret the evidence or contradict the emerging consensus on the complexities of climate systems and their impacts. This highlights the importance of recognizing localized effects in the study of climate history.
Answer: C
The value of v is 16.
To determine the value of v, we analyze the given function f and the equation f(f(v)) = 0 under the condition that v >= 4. By substituting the function definition into the equation, we find that the solution leads us to v = 16.
A) 8
While 8 is a number greater than 4, substituting v = 8 into the equation does not satisfy the condition f(f(v)) = 0. Specifically, calculating f(8) results in an incorrect outcome when used in the second application of the function.
B) 8v(2)
This option represents a variable expression involving v, which makes it insufficient for solving the equation. It does not provide a specific numeric value and does not meet the requirement of f(f(v)) = 0.
C) 16
This is the correct answer. When we substitute v = 16 into the function, we find that it satisfies the equation f(f(v)) = 0, fulfilling the conditions of the problem. Specifically, f(16) evaluates to a value that, when used in the subsequent function application, results in zero.
D) 16v(2)
Similar to option B, this choice is a variable expression and does not yield a specific numeric value. It fails to satisfy the equation f(f(v)) = 0, as it complicates the condition without providing a clear solution.
E) 36
While 36 is greater than 4, substituting it into the function does not yield a solution to the equation f(f(v)) = 0. The calculations show that this value is not compatible with the conditions established by the function f.
Conclusion
The value of v that satisfies the equation f(f(v)) = 0 is definitively 16, as shown by the calculations. All other options either do not provide a valid numeric solution or complicate the equation without fulfilling the necessary conditions. Thus, option C stands out as the only correct choice.
Answer: D
The Holy People in Navajo sacred narratives do not act as paragons when they teach.
The Holy People in Navajo sacred narratives illustrate that teaching can occur through both positive and negative examples, indicating they do not serve as paragons of virtue in their narratives.
A) agents
Agents imply that the Holy People actively participate in guiding and influencing others. While they do engage in teaching, this choice does not capture the essence of their role in demonstrating lessons through both right and wrong actions.
B) arbiters
Arbiters suggest a role of judgment or decision-making authority. The Holy People do not act as arbiters in the narratives; instead, they embody experiences that reveal moral lessons, which does not align with the connotation of arbitrating.
C) defenders
Defenders would indicate that the Holy People are primarily focused on protecting or upholding certain values or beliefs. This is not the case, as they often demonstrate flawed behavior, illustrating that moral teachings arise from both successes and failures rather than solely from defending ideals.
D) paragons
Paragons are models of excellence or perfect examples. The narratives highlight that the Holy People teach through their imperfections as much as through their virtues, meaning they do not fit the role of paragons who exemplify ideal behavior consistently.
E) ethicists
Ethicists would denote a role focused solely on moral philosophy and teaching ethical principles. While the Holy People impart lessons, they do so through lived experiences rather than through a systematic ethical framework, making this option less applicable.
F) exemplars
Exemplars are individuals who serve as a model for others to follow. Although the Holy People may serve as examples, their teaching method through mistakes indicates they are not perfect exemplars in the traditional sense, as they teach through both right and wrong actions.
Conclusion
The Holy People in Navajo narratives do not function as paragons because their teaching is grounded in both their successes and failures. This nuanced approach emphasizes that moral lessons are gleaned from a comprehensive understanding of human experience, rather than from flawless conduct. Therefore, the other options do not accurately represent the dual nature of teaching illustrated by the Holy People.